Three, count ‘em, three reasons why the transcendent cause of the universe is plausibly to be taken to be personal:
First, as Richard Swinburne points out [in The Existence of God], there are two types of causal explanation: scientific explanations in terms of laws and initial conditions and personal explanations in terms of agents and their volitions. For example, if I come into the kitchen and find the kettle boiling, and I ask Jan, “Why is the kettle boiling?” she might answer, “The heat of the flame is being conducted via the copper bottom of the kettle to the water, increasing the kinetic energy of the water molecules, such that they vibrate so violently that they break the surface tension of the water and are thrown off in the form of steam.” Or she might say, “I put it on to make a cup of tea. Would you like some?” The first provides a scientific explanation, the second a personal explanation. Each is a perfectly legitimate form of explanation; indeed, in certain contexts it would be wholly inappropriate to give one rather than the other. Now a first state of the universe cannot have a scientific explanation, since there is nothing before it, and therefore it cannot be accounted for in terms of laws operating on initial conditions. It can only be accounted for in terms of an agent and his volitions, a personal explanation.
Second, the personhood of the cause of the universe is implied by its timelessness and immateriality. The only entities we know of which can possess such properties are either minds or abstract objects, like numbers. But abstract objects do not stand in causal relations. Indeed, their acausal nature is definitive for abstract
objects; that is why we call them abstract. Numbers, for example, cannot cause anything. Therefore, the transcendent cause of the origin of the universe must be of the order of mind.Third, this same conclusion is also implied by the fact that we have in this case the origin of a temporal effect from a timeless cause. We’ve concluded that the beginning of the universe was the effect of a first cause. By the nature of the case, that cause cannot have any beginning of its existence or any prior cause. Nor can there have been any changes in this cause, either in its nature or operations, prior
to the beginning of the universe. It just exists changelessly without beginning, and a finite time ago it brought the universe into existence. Now this is exceedingly odd. The cause is in some sense eternal and yet the effect which it produced is not eternal but began to exist a finite time ago. How can this be? If the necessary and
sufficient conditions for the production of the effect are eternal, then why isn’t the effect eternal? How can all the causal conditions sufficient for the production of the effect be changelessly existent and yet the effect not also be existent along with the cause? How can the cause exist without the effect?One might say that the cause came to exist or changed in some way just prior to the first event. But then the cause’s beginning or changing would be the first event, and we must ask all over again for its cause. And this cannot go on forever, for we know that a beginningless series of events cannot exist. There must be an
absolutely first event, before which there was no change, no previous event. We know that this first event must have been caused. The question is: How can a first event come to exist if the cause of that event exists changelessly and eternally? Why isn’t the effect co-eternal with its cause?To illustrate: Let’s say the cause of water’s freezing is subzero temperatures. If the temperature were eternally below zero degrees Centigrade, then any water around would be eternally frozen. If the cause exists eternally, the effect must also exist eternally. But this seems to imply that if the cause of the universe existed eternally, the universe would also have existed eternally. And this we know to be false.
One way to see the difficulty is by reflecting on the different types of causal relations. In event/event causation, one event causes another. For example, the brick’s striking the window pane causes the pane to shatter. This kind of causal relation clearly involves a beginning of the effect in time, since it is a relation between events which occur at specific times. In state/state causation one state of affairs causes another state of affairs to exist. For example, the water’s having a certain surface tension is the cause of the wood’s floating on the water. In this sort of causal relation, the effect need not have a beginning: the wood could theoretically be floating eternally on the water. If the wood begins to float on the water, then this will be a case of event/event causation: the wood’s beginning to float is the result of its being thrown into the water. Now the difficulty that arises in the case of the cause of the beginning of the universe is that we seem to have a peculiar case of state/event causation: the cause is a timeless state but the effect is an event that occurred at a specific moment in the finite past. Such state/event causation doesn’t seem to make sense, since a state sufficient for the existence of its effect should have a state as its effect.
There seems to be only one way out of this dilemma, and that is to say that the cause of the universe’s beginning is a personal agent who freely chooses to create a universe in time. Philosophers call this type of causation “agent causation,” and because the agent is free, he can initiate new effects by freely bringing about conditions which were not previously present. For example, a man sitting changelessly from eternity could freely will to stand up; thus, a temporal effect arises from an eternally existing agent. Similarly, a finite time ago a Creator endowed with free will could have freely brought the world into being at that moment. In this way, the Creator could exist changelessly and eternally but choose to create the world in time. By “choose” one need not mean that the Creator changes his mind about the decision to create, but that he freely and eternally intends to create a world with a beginning. By exercising his causal power, he therefore brings it about that a world with a beginning comes to exist. So the cause is eternal, but the effect is not. In this way, then, it is possible for the temporal universe to have come to exist from an eternal cause: through the free will of a personal Creator.
On the basis of a conceptual analysis of the conclusion implied by the kalām cosmological argument, we may therefore infer that a personal Creator of the universe exists, who is uncaused, beginningless, changeless, immaterial, timeless, spaceless, and unimaginably powerful. This, as Thomas Aquinas was wont to remark, is what everybody means by “God.”
So there.
4 comments:
This is why your God is the God of the Gaps. This statement here near the beginning:
“Now a first state of the universe cannot have a scientific explanation, since there is nothing before it, and therefore it cannot be accounted for in terms of laws operating on initial conditions. It can only be accounted for in terms of an agent and his volitions, a personal explanation.”
This is an assumption based on limiting what we can know. The assumption is since we don’t know how something can be scientifically explained today, we never will, and not only that, a scientific explanation does not/could not POSSIBLY exist. On that basis, you travel down a seemingly logical pathway, but it is based on the assumption of our permanent ignorance. The very definition of “God of the Gaps.”
In your second section, God of the Gaps again. “That we know of.”
Next:
“...the universe would also have existed eternally. And this we know to be false.”
You are doing two things here. You are making a statement of absolute knowledge and you are limiting the possibilities in order to restrict the outcome. As we all know, how we define the boundaries of our universe changes as we make new discoveries. You wish to lock the universe into what we know now. You say “this is what the universe is” and that is not how science works. In science we say, “given the evidence we have at this moment, the universe is best explained as…” Now, in casual conversation, one may say things in a definitive way, but when truly focusing on the scientific landscape, that’s how the universe is defined.It’s frustrating I know, but it’s true.
Future discoveries may cause us to redefine the Universe as “Universe-Sub 1”, the descendant of/offshoot of a Universe Prime. Or part of an eternal chain of universes. You obviously believe it’s possible for something to be eternal.These are just examples of possibilities you discard without cause.
So, for me your assertion that the Cause of the universe must be an entity is based on assumption of permanent ignorance and is thus false. It may not be false to you and that’s fine for you, but you’re asking why I am unconvinced by the “evidence” put forth by theists like yourself. Because, so far, the proofs put forward are based on assumptions that ring false to me.
Now, I know you got frustrated yesterday because I had the audacity to think before I made my statements, but you and I know that words have meaning. Theists like yourself look to have others use a word or phrase in a particular way, even if it is not an accurate depiction of their thoughts, so you can then take it down a road to a particular conclusion. Which is why you constantly re-ask and rephrase your questions: Do you believe in God? How do you know there is no god? Do you agree this statement is true? Would you say...? How do you support your lack belief?
You may not like the fact that I’m able to see the traps you’re trying to lay before me (you may not even believe that’s what you’re doing), but that’s too bad. I’m not being cowardly, or gutless or unmanly or whatever derogatory poke you think will get me going. I’m not Marty McFly. Calling me “chicken” just makes you look small to me. I’m not refusing to take a position. I’m able as self-aware a person as you are likely to meet and I am forthright in what I say.
I do not believe in God. Yours or anyone else’. My reasons are straight-forward. I do not believe because no one has convinced me their version of God is evidenced in the Universe. I’m unconvinced that in order for the Universe to exist there must have been an entity behind it. Much less an intelligent one. Lesser still an intelligent and benevolent one. That’s why I don’t believe in your broad-spectrum First Cause god. It is, be my standard, a “god of the gaps” and an assertion grounded in mankind’s ignorance.
If you were to make a less general god definition, I could be more specific. I don’t believe in the god of the bible for the same reason I don’t believe in Thor. I believe it to be mythology. The bible itself is based in actual events, but is akin to historical fiction, with real events tied in with legends, parables, inaccuracies, symbols, and magical creatures, so is not evidence to me. I don’t believe in Karma because it appears to be projection own man’s part. I don’t believe in the “matrix” or the universal connection of consciousness because both concepts lack evidence to me. I’m not making that up, people believe in these things.
So what position have I not taken?
You seem to be of the mind (and I admit I could be wrong) that people have a “space” in them that must be filled with beliefs and if someone rejects one belief it must have been actively replaced by another. So what your asking of me (and I presume others) is that I defend the unspoken belief that keeps me from accepting yours.
That’s not how it works.
This is the bit that sticks in my craw:
"Therefore, the transcendent cause of the origin of the universe must be of the order of mind."
We have no evidence that a mind is even possible without a physical body, so to say that a non-physical, non-spacial, non-temporal mind is the cause of the entire universe is a bit of a leap.
You do understand that if you accept the premises of the argument for personhood as true and the form of the argument as valid and sound, you simply cannot dispute the deductive result of the argument?
Besides, what sort of evidence would you accept if the being so described is non-physical, non-spatial, non-temporal? Would you somehow have to sprout the ability to "see" something non-physical? Would you need to be able to measure something non-temporal? How on earth (no pun intended) would you even be able to sift and analyze such evidence?
This is why, of necessity, we have to resort to conceptual analysis. We simply have no other method by which we can wrangle the topic with any effectiveness.
If I were to take your statement as a way of thinking about things, I'd be making the same mistake those who "knew" there were no such things as black swans in the time before they were discovered in Australia.
Simply, the absence of evidence does not mean the evidence of absence.
Thanks for the comment.
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